CanAct06
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A few more questions... 1) For bullet 1, So what would've happened if that FCF was +ve which is a loss (PAA LRC - FCF) = (0 - +####) = -####... this is -ve and no abs value in excel formula. 2) Can you talk about the FCF tied in with PAA LRC.…
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2019 S 25 d/2014 S 31/2014 F 34: I guess this is a trick question, bc they are not giving full details of the FCIA - but you'd have to see if the specific condition listed is broken? Here are the extra ?ns I had: ** 1) Does consulting experience …
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Ok I see, the 'severity' is from the RE's perspective
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so are you saying this question 2013 F18 is kind of worded incorrectly, because it says "Estimated Payment to Reinsurer". That is the part that threw me off.
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I don't know if I agree with the i) explanation in the wiki article. If you get a 3M loss, you wipe out the 1 agg_deductible AND retention in one go? So for 3 mill loss, -1M premium -1M in deductible/retention. So the RE pays 1M. And that's i…
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I think you meant 2021 for one of them? makes sense
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I know this is outdated, but the formula is: ERD = Prob (NPV loss) * NPV (avg sev of loss as % of prem) ERD is basically (frequency) x (severity as a % of premium) 1) in this case the total loss is 200 and total premium is 100, why are we subtr…
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This seems random, why is the threshold 20%? Why would you 'add' this piece above 20% growth as a piece of capital?
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Why are we taking the avg in step 2b from 2a? -> But why are we shifting the CF 'back' by half a year? I guess the discounting makes sense bc you are moving from half yr accidents to time 0, but the CF avg is weird.
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I don't understand this at all: 1) How can you have LRC < 0? Can you disect the formula for LRC vs. FCF? How they differ. 2) Like the gentleman asked, how can a Cash Inf for FCF cause a further loss? Still not making sense, so confusing I am n…
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One of the excel file downloads... The name of file is in subject