Staff-T1
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There COULD be a significant financing component for both your scenarios. But it would need to be tested. If the premiums are received and service is provided within one year then there is no financing component period
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That's the definition of a hybrid approach. You calculate the reference portfolio liquidity premium once and then add it to the risk free rate on roll-forwards. For part C, you are making adjustments to market and credit risk to make them compati…
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Yes
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The RA is also discounted, so you'd need to unwind that. And no, no one says LIC & RA. By definition the LIC includes RA so unwinding the discount on the LIC would include unwinding the discount on the RA also. For Q13 specifically, they probabl…
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For PAA specifically, there is no ambiguity around the signs. It's always UEP - DAC so there wouldn't be confusion there. And being negative does not necessarily mean profitable specifically for the PAA
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It's just a coincidence here. I wouldn't look too much into it
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That's correct
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I don't know anything about life insurance so I can't speak on that. What do you mean reversed for PAA? The PAA does not require an estimate for the FCF. They usually wouldn't provide you the FCF directly and you'd need to calculate it yourself, w…
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They're both the same formula - One is just providing more information. Carrying amount would be the prior LRC that is being roll forwarded. The adjustments to a financing component are shown in sample 7 of the sample IFRS questions. I am not su…
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No, I think you are right. F is supposed to include the words reinsurance premiums payable and other acceptable non-owned deposit, consistent with what's in the MCT. I'll fix that
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That's part of the UPR calculation (Prem Received + Premiums Receivable - Earned Premium)
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It really boils down to experience and actually working on loss components and knowing when to disclose onerosity. This is probably not what you want to hear. That said, in the exam just explain more. For example, if you think having a higher COR th…
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All good
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That's because you are viewing things at the end of 12 months (You have already paid out 52% of ultimate and are only left with 48% to pay out). So from months 12 to 24, you will pay out 20% of the total ultimate, but there is only 48% remaining to …
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Yes, they are paying the entire premium for 3 years up front. Technically, this means you can earn substantial investment income before your premium is "earned" for the latter years (2-3). This leads to the significant financing component
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In 2015, they only provided you investment income which does not include realized gains while in 2018 it is net investment income which does include realized gains
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In Q19, that is very specific because onerosity means that you are loss-making. Having an actual COR > Planned COR does not necessarily mean you are loss-making, you could just be making less ( Note they do not say by how much you are worse than …
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They should both be the same. I have no idea why the formula's are set up that way. The only difference is one is on a quarterly basis and one is on an annual basis
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Yes, net income is always after taxes
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That's not right. Your net income is already net of taxes so how can that be total income taxes
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I do not see what you are looking at. the closest is his section "The effective duration is harder to calculate, but it gives a similar answer to the modified duration when interest rate changes DO NOT AFFECT future cash flows" Which is a correct st…
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That's not right - The source mentions this in section 13 - " To measure a group of contracts, an entity may estimate the fulfilment cash flows at a higher level of aggregation than the group or portfolio, provided the entity is able to include the …
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Yes to all 3. 1) Income in the numerator of ROE should always be post tax. In #25 F2017, there was no way to know how much income tax should be charged which is why that is fine. 2) Capital gains are included in investment income here: 1500 (inves…