IFRS17 Bonus Question, part d
Hi,
Are we supposed to know how to do part d?
If so, in the solution why is that when calculating mu we use only the LIC PV(FCF) as E[X] but when calculating the Z value we standardize LIC+RA. see formulas used in the solution below:
mu = ln(LIC) - sigma^2/2 = 8.5122
Z value = (ln(LIC+RA) - mu)/sigma = 0.9364
Confidence level (using Norm.Dist) = 0.8255
Maybe this is fundamental from previous exams but I can't really remember why.
Thanks!
Comments
If you add your RA to the FCF, then it's no longer the expected value. It's some amount E(X) + y which means you can't solve for mu anymore using the provided formula should you do that. Remember, the expected value is your BEL.
You add the RA to the FCF to determine the percentile of the risk adjustment in your loss distribution. But in order to do that, you need to know what the underlying distribution is, which is what we were doing in the prior step.
Ah that makes a lot of sense, thank you!
Hi @Staff-T1 ,
I have a few question here:
Thanks!
Is the quantile method the same thing as the confidence level method? I see the confidence level method for calculating RA in the appendix but not sure where it comes from
Yes you are right. RA is usually calculated using the cost of capital approach (above) and the quantile/confidence level method