MFAD Source Reading - page 8
Page 8 - In the source, this part states that "there maybe circumstances in which selection of adverse deviations above the high margin would be appropriate... when the resulting provision for adverse deviation is unreasonably LOW because the mfad is expressed as % of best estimate is unusually low" Could someone explain this part for me ? I am not sure if there is a typo.
Comments
I've copied the paragraph you're referring to below:
To explain their reasoning, let's consider this hypothetical example where for some unusual reason, the best estimate is very low relative to the size of the company:
This type of thing normally shouldn't happen but the actuary needs to have freedom to deviate in special situations.