carrots1
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The way I see it is you have 2 options (@graham you can correct it if I'm wrong!) * Deduction (A+B+C+D)-(E+F+G+H+I) > 0, the insurer is expecting recoverables above the amount the insurer pays to the assuming reinsurer. So it can be deducte…
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Here is a screenshot of the details in the calculation: The APV is adding Fulfillment cash flows + RA and I would have expected the APV to just be Fulfillment cash flow. is this correct?
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in the updated BA practice exam #16, I don't understand why the APV = FCF (LIC + LRC) + Risk adjustment for non-financial risk. Doesn't the FCF already account for the RA? FCF = discounted future cash flow + RA Are we double counting?
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Actually I thought it was referring to OSFI supervisory framework paper? 4 key principles * forward looking * distinguish between inherent risks and risk management * include all material risks * use sound predictive judgement
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Are these 2 formulas still valid for Spring 2023? Will they be providing that information or will it be under a different name or would they put up a PC1 and I need to calculate the Net income the way that is detailed in the CCIR instructions
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Is DAC the directly attributable maintenance expenses that are incurred in 1 year in this example? also is DAC always the deferred acquisition costs that are directly attributable to the portfolio or can they also include non-directly attributable
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Okay this clears it up, thanks!
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maybe a dumb question, what does it mean at subsequent measurement? Does it mean like at renewal of the group of contracts? Also concerning the second bullet point, it says if we group together onerous underlying contracts covered by reinsurance …
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ok thank you!
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In the excel exercise, the solution does include Capital B and C in the gross capital but you mention that the Common shares is suppose to already include Capital B and C... are we double counting somewhere?